Why are fines for breaking the law set fee’s instead of a percentage of a persons income?
if it was based on income, does that mean that the unemployed or retired can speed as much as they want and not get a fine? Also, wouldn't it give the police incentive to stop nice looking cars to get higher fines?
The Short Answer
if it was based on income, does that mean that the unemployed or retired can speed as much as they want and not get a fine? Also, wouldn't it give the police incentive to stop nice looking cars to get higher fines?
Analysis
Key Concepts: Based, income, mean
This explanation focuses on based, income, mean and spans 42 words across 2 sentences. At 42% below the average History explanation (72 words), the answer takes a direct, no-frills approach — sometimes the simplest explanation is the most effective.
What This Answer Covers
This is a focused, single-point answer that gets directly to the core of the question without detours.
How This Compares in History
Ranked #347 of 500 History questions by answer depth (top 70%). This is in the concise tier — a focused explanation that prioritizes clarity over exhaustiveness. Many readers prefer this level of directness.
Frequently Asked Questions
Is there a simple explanation for why fines for breaking the law set fee's instead of a percentage of a persons income?
if it was based on income, does that mean that the unemployed or retired can speed as much as they want and not get a fine? Also, wouldn't it give the police incentive to stop nice looking cars to get higher fines?
How detailed is this explanation compared to similar History questions?
This is a focused answer at 42 words, ranked #347 of 500 History questions by depth. The key concepts covered are based, income, mean.
What approach does this answer take to explain fines for breaking the law set fee's instead of a percentage?
The explanation uses direct explanation across 42 words. It is categorized under History and addresses the question through 1 analytical lens.